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In article ,
Jeremy Nixon wrote: Chris Brown wrote: It's entirely unclear why you think this usage has "almost certainly been destroyed beyond hope of recovery". If a cricket-nerd uses it, it will be obvious from context which version they are talking about, hence there is to be no confusion. Do you really think that, even in the nerdiest of cricket-nerd circles, anyone can ever again use that word without everyone who hears him thinking of the "new" meaning? Even if they can't, that's not even close to your original position. |
"BC" wrote in message oups.com... "Go ahead, outline "that evolutionary process" for me. I'd sure like to see how you get "fixed focal length" to evolve into "prime." What might the intermediate steps look like, I wonder?" Many of the earlier zoom lenses from the 1960's and 1970's comprised an afocal zooming portion in the front, followed by a fixed focal length lens group in the rear. That fixed focal length lens group was, and still is, called a "prime lens". That's interesting. If that FFL lens group would (or could if separated) function independently as a stand-alone lens, then that seems like correct usage. That is, you have what is essentially a prime lens with a zoom attachment, even if they are built as a single unit. I suspect that this may have led to all fixed focal length lenses being called prime lenses. For all I know you may be right, though I have always suspected the usage came about through someone seeing "prime lens" correctly used, i.e. in connection with some attachment such as a close-up lens or tele extender, and the prime lens happening to be FFL, just assumed that was what "prime" meant. But this is just speculation on my part. As a side note, this early type of zoom lens automatically had a constant f/# through zoom. However, it is not nearly as common a design form as it used to be. As I've pointed out to you earlier, respected manufacturers such as Panavision do use the word "prime" to mean fixed focal length. The cat is clearly out of the bag here, and we might as well get used to "prime" and "fixed focal length" being synonyms. I'm sorry I don't remember your earlier mention of this. (Was it recent?) I've just Googled "panavision" and find you are correct, though as I've mentioned previously other manufacturers (Schneider, Zeiss, Arri etc.) do *not* use "prime" and "fixed focal length" synonymously, since they catalogue "variable prime" lenses--lenses of variable focal length. Panavision appears to be in the minority among lens makers as far as its usage is concerned. Incidentally, while looking I also found this, in connection with Panavision's Camera 65 system: "This employed using 65 mm film in conjunction with the APO Panatar lens, an integrated anamorphic lens (rather than a prime lens with an anamorphoser mounted on it) set to a 1.25 expansion factor." http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panavision Now that clearly uses "prime lens" to distinguish the camera lens--whether FFL or not--from the attachment used with it, which is correct usage. A link in that sentence takes the reader to Wikipedia's definition for "prime lens," which is the now popular and incorrect one. I think it's significant that Wikipedia's definition of the term, though a popular one, does not comport with their own use of the term in the Panavision article. This sort of confusion could be avoided simply by not using "prime" to mean fixed focal length, which no existing definition for "prime" can support in the first place. N. |
"Peter" wrote in message ups.com... Chris Brown wrote: For awesome, try awe-inspiring. For amazing, try astonishing I don't agree that "astounding" has "lost" its meaning - perhaps this is a British English/American English difference? Incredible - not-credible Unbelievable - not-believable One of my strongest memories from reading H.G. Wells' The Time Machine when I was about 10 or 11 was the way he used the word "incredible" it was immediately obvious from the context that he really meant it. I do not think I had read the word used in its strong sense before. It has left me with a conviction that words can be rescued. Hear, hear! :-) Perhaps the word did not yet need to be rescued in 1898 when the book was first published, but it certainly did in 1978, and for me the word was restored to its proper meaning as soon as I read it. To my mind, "not-credible" is a weak work-around for a word that has lost its former power, and I'd much rather read "incredible" from someone capable of writing in a way which shows that he really means it. Fully agree. If the cheapening and dilution of words like "incredible" is anyone's idea of evolution, I'll take vanilla. N. |
In article , Nostrobino
writes "David Littlewood" wrote in message ... In article , Nostrobino writes Common use makes it "correct", and indicates the language has evolved. No. The popularity of some misusage does not automatically make it correct, as you seem to believe. Look in any authoritative dictionary that has usage notes, and you will find misusages that have enjoyed great popularity for many, many years and are just still as wrong as they ever were. As with many "quotations" - for example, "gilding the lily". I'm not familiar with the origins of that. It is a Shakespeare quotation which has gone into common usage here for needless over-adornment or expense, as for example with gold plated taps. However, although pretty well everyone in the UK at least would understand "gilding the lily" to mean this, it is a foolish misquote, which flatly makes nonsense of the point: lilies are not already gilded, so gilding them is not pointless. The correct quote (from King John, ii 9) is: "To be possess'd with double pomp, To guard a title that was rich before, To gild refined gold, to paint the lily, To throw perfume on the violet, To smooth the ice, or add another hue, Unto the rainbow, or with taper light, To seek the beauteous eye of heaven to garnish, Is wasteful and hideous excess." (He sure could write) Byron also quoted the key line in Don Juan, stanza 76: "As Shakespeare says, 'tis very silly To gild refined gold, or paint the lily." However, if you used the expression "painting the lily" I doubt if one in a thousand in the UK would get the point. Just an example of the massive power of popular ignorance. My current anti-favorite is "that begs the question, question inserted here." Ever since some TV ads appeared (again and again) with a voice-over asking, "That begs the question, Is it better to give name of product, forgotten or to receive?" this annoying misusage has spread like the proverbial wildfire, among commentators, columnists and others, who evidently think it's just a classy way of saying "raises the question." Here in the U.S. the expression "that begs the question" was almost never seen, except occasionally in British writing. So when the average American reader saw "that begs the question" in, say, an English novel, he had not the foggiest idea what it meant. (Question? What question?) Now unfortunately we see it again and again, *never* used correctly. To beg the question is, correctly, to assume the truth of a proposition without actually attempting to prove it. For example (from Brewer's Dictionary of Phrase and Fable): "parallel lines never meet because they are parallel". Originally a translation from Latin "petitio principii", though first used by the Greek Aristotle. You are right in that it should not be used to mean "raises the question", as begging the question very much involves deliberately not raising a question (i.e. the truth or otherwise of the underlying proposition) which really needs to be raised. David -- David Littlewood |
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"Peter" wrote in message oups.com... [ . . . ] There's no point in objecting to slang when it is used as such. The slowly creaping respectability of the term is a relatively recent phenomenon. I have dozens of books about photography, only one, published in 2000, contains "prime lens" in the sense of "fixed focal length lens." It would be interesting if someone could dig up the earliest print uses in photography books. I don't know whether it's the earliest, but I have somewhere--can't find it at the moment--a book on the Minolta 600si by Thomas Maschke and Peter K. Burian that uses the term "prime" to mean FFL. The book is part of the Magic Lantern Guide series and (checking Amazon just now) was published in 1996. What is interesting is that a book on the 700si etc. by the same two authors, in the same series, published just a year or so previously, covering the same subjects including lenses, does not use "prime" at all. So from this I conclude that Maschke and Burian, who have written a number of books on cameras, only picked up this "prime lens" thing c. 1995. (Amazon gives only Burian as the author of the 1994 book, but I'm pretty sure my copy--which I also can't find at the moment--lists both authors.) N. |
David Littlewood wrote:
In article , Nostrobino writes "David Littlewood" wrote in message ... In article , Nostrobino writes Common use makes it "correct", and indicates the language has evolved. No. The popularity of some misusage does not automatically make it correct, as you seem to believe. Look in any authoritative dictionary that has usage notes, and you will find misusages that have enjoyed great popularity for many, many years and are just still as wrong as they ever were. As with many "quotations" - for example, "gilding the lily". I'm not familiar with the origins of that. It is a Shakespeare quotation which has gone into common usage here for needless over-adornment or expense, as for example with gold plated taps. However, although pretty well everyone in the UK at least would understand "gilding the lily" to mean this, it is a foolish misquote, which flatly makes nonsense of the point: lilies are not already gilded, so gilding them is not pointless. The correct quote (from King John, ii 9) is: "To be possess'd with double pomp, To guard a title that was rich before, To gild refined gold, to paint the lily, To throw perfume on the violet, To smooth the ice, or add another hue, Unto the rainbow, or with taper light, To seek the beauteous eye of heaven to garnish, Is wasteful and hideous excess." (He sure could write) Byron also quoted the key line in Don Juan, stanza 76: "As Shakespeare says, 'tis very silly To gild refined gold, or paint the lily." However, if you used the expression "painting the lily" I doubt if one in a thousand in the UK would get the point. Just an example of the massive power of popular ignorance. My current anti-favorite is "that begs the question, question inserted here." Ever since some TV ads appeared (again and again) with a voice-over asking, "That begs the question, Is it better to give name of product, forgotten or to receive?" this annoying misusage has spread like the proverbial wildfire, among commentators, columnists and others, who evidently think it's just a classy way of saying "raises the question." Here in the U.S. the expression "that begs the question" was almost never seen, except occasionally in British writing. So when the average American reader saw "that begs the question" in, say, an English novel, he had not the foggiest idea what it meant. (Question? What question?) Now unfortunately we see it again and again, *never* used correctly. To beg the question is, correctly, to assume the truth of a proposition without actually attempting to prove it. For example (from Brewer's Dictionary of Phrase and Fable): "parallel lines never meet because they are parallel". Originally a translation from Latin "petitio principii", though first used by the Greek Aristotle. You are right in that it should not be used to mean "raises the question", as begging the question very much involves deliberately not raising a question (i.e. the truth or otherwise of the underlying proposition) which really needs to be raised. I've almost given up on derailing the new usage and soon-to-be standard meaning. Begs the question: "Have they stopped beating their wives?" -- Frank ess |
"David Littlewood" wrote in message ... In article , Nostrobino writes "David Littlewood" wrote in message ... In article , Nostrobino writes Common use makes it "correct", and indicates the language has evolved. No. The popularity of some misusage does not automatically make it correct, as you seem to believe. Look in any authoritative dictionary that has usage notes, and you will find misusages that have enjoyed great popularity for many, many years and are just still as wrong as they ever were. As with many "quotations" - for example, "gilding the lily". I'm not familiar with the origins of that. It is a Shakespeare quotation which has gone into common usage here for needless over-adornment or expense, as for example with gold plated taps. However, although pretty well everyone in the UK at least would understand "gilding the lily" to mean this, it is a foolish misquote, which flatly makes nonsense of the point: lilies are not already gilded, so gilding them is not pointless. The correct quote (from King John, ii 9) is: "To be possess'd with double pomp, To guard a title that was rich before, To gild refined gold, to paint the lily, To throw perfume on the violet, To smooth the ice, or add another hue, Unto the rainbow, or with taper light, To seek the beauteous eye of heaven to garnish, Is wasteful and hideous excess." (He sure could write) He sure could, and I'm embarrassed not to have known that source. (Sometimes it seems to me that about half of our common expressions, and practically all of the better ones, are from Shakespeare, so it doesn't surprise me.) I think I've read most of Shakespeare's plays and especially love the histories, but I guess I somehow missed King John. "Gilding the lily" is a well-understood expression here in the U.S. too, but I never knew it was a misquotation. Byron also quoted the key line in Don Juan, stanza 76: "As Shakespeare says, 'tis very silly To gild refined gold, or paint the lily." However, if you used the expression "painting the lily" I doubt if one in a thousand in the UK would get the point. Just an example of the massive power of popular ignorance. My current anti-favorite is "that begs the question, question inserted here." Ever since some TV ads appeared (again and again) with a voice-over asking, "That begs the question, Is it better to give name of product, forgotten or to receive?" this annoying misusage has spread like the proverbial wildfire, among commentators, columnists and others, who evidently think it's just a classy way of saying "raises the question." Here in the U.S. the expression "that begs the question" was almost never seen, except occasionally in British writing. So when the average American reader saw "that begs the question" in, say, an English novel, he had not the foggiest idea what it meant. (Question? What question?) Now unfortunately we see it again and again, *never* used correctly. To beg the question is, correctly, to assume the truth of a proposition without actually attempting to prove it. For example (from Brewer's Dictionary of Phrase and Fable): "parallel lines never meet because they are parallel". Originally a translation from Latin "petitio principii", though first used by the Greek Aristotle. You are right in that it should not be used to mean "raises the question", as begging the question very much involves deliberately not raising a question (i.e. the truth or otherwise of the underlying proposition) which really needs to be raised. Your explanation is certainly far better than my dictionary's, which basically just says "beg the question" means "to reason badly" or some such thing. I doubt that most American dictionaries even mention the expression at all (my desk dictionary doesn't), which only makes it that much easier for the ignorant to get away with misusing it. N. |
In article , Nostrobino
writes (He sure could write) He sure could, and I'm embarrassed not to have known that source. (Sometimes it seems to me that about half of our common expressions, and practically all of the better ones, are from Shakespeare, so it doesn't surprise me.) I think I've read most of Shakespeare's plays and especially love the histories, but I guess I somehow missed King John. "Gilding the lily" is a well-understood expression here in the U.S. too, but I never knew it was a misquotation. It's not a popular play - the first of the English kings series (though I don't know whether it was written first - I mean John was the earliest king to be covered). To beg the question is, correctly, to assume the truth of a proposition without actually attempting to prove it. For example (from Brewer's Dictionary of Phrase and Fable): "parallel lines never meet because they are parallel". Originally a translation from Latin "petitio principii", though first used by the Greek Aristotle. You are right in that it should not be used to mean "raises the question", as begging the question very much involves deliberately not raising a question (i.e. the truth or otherwise of the underlying proposition) which really needs to be raised. Your explanation is certainly far better than my dictionary's, which basically just says "beg the question" means "to reason badly" or some such thing. I doubt that most American dictionaries even mention the expression at all (my desk dictionary doesn't), which only makes it that much easier for the ignorant to get away with misusing it. Incidentally - and getting even more off topic - the bit about parallel lines never meeting is not an essential truth, it was merely one of the assumptions ("axioms") postulated by Euclid (another Greek philosopher, these guys got around) in devising the rules of geometry. Other systems of geometry exist in which it is not true at all, thus demonstrating the benefits of questioning the underlying assumptions. David -- David Littlewood |
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